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Comments on Tevillas Keilim on Used things
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Tevillas Keilim on Used things
I was reading up on tevillas keilim and saw the following statements on this site:
Utensils require tevila if they were given by a Jew to a Yehudi as a gift or if they were bought from a aino Yehudi .
this would lead me to think that if one BOUGHT from a Jew, one would not be required to tovel
it is not proper or necessary to investigate if the host complies with the laws of tevilas keilim since we assume G-d fearing Jews comply with the halacha
with these 2 ideas, I have questions --
What happens if I buy from a Jew? Do I have to ask him if the utensils were immersed or should I (like as in the second case, which is for when I am eating at someone's house) assume that they were?
What happens if I know the seller is Jewish but I don't know who he is or have any way of contacting him (for example if I'm buying off of a website which only allows Jewish users)?
Could I start a business in which I buy utensils and then sell them anonymously to Jews so that they don't have to worry about tovelling them?
Post
One foundational point that might shed some clarity:
- The requirement for tevilas keilim is only for utensils that are owned and being used with food by a Jew, but were previously owned by a non-Jew. If you own such a utensil but will not be using it for food (or at all), you have no requirement to immerse it.
So, if you buy utensils from a Jew that were personally used by him, then you don't need to immerse them because you can assume that has already been done. But if you buy utensils from a Jew that were only purchased for the purpose of resale, then he would have no obligation to immerse them, and you cannot assume they were immersed.
And no, such a business wouldn't be viable, because the purchasers would have to assume they would need to immerse them.
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