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One foundational point that might shed some clarity: The requirement for tevilas keilim is only for utensils that are owned and being used with food by a Jew, but were previously owned by a non-...
Answer
#1: Initial revision
by
PinnyM
·
2023-11-16T21:31:43Z (6 months ago)
One foundational point that might shed some clarity: - The requirement for tevilas keilim is only for utensils that are owned _and being used with food_ by a Jew, but were previously owned by a non-Jew. If you own such a utensil but will not be using it for food (or at all), you have no requirement to immerse it. So, if you buy utensils from a Jew that were personally used by him, then you don't need to immerse them because you can assume that has already been done. But if you buy utensils from a Jew that were only purchased for the purpose of resale, then he would have no obligation to immerse them, and you cannot assume they were immersed. And no, such a business wouldn't be viable, because the purchasers would have to assume they would need to immerse them.