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Comments on Tevillas Keilim on Used things

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Tevillas Keilim on Used things

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I was reading up on tevillas keilim and saw the following statements on this site:

Utensils require tevila if they were given by a Jew to a Yehudi as a gift or if they were bought from a aino Yehudi .

this would lead me to think that if one BOUGHT from a Jew, one would not be required to tovel

it is not proper or necessary to investigate if the host complies with the laws of tevilas keilim since we assume G-d fearing Jews comply with the halacha

with these 2 ideas, I have questions --

What happens if I buy from a Jew? Do I have to ask him if the utensils were immersed or should I (like as in the second case, which is for when I am eating at someone's house) assume that they were?

What happens if I know the seller is Jewish but I don't know who he is or have any way of contacting him (for example if I'm buying off of a website which only allows Jewish users)?

Could I start a business in which I buy utensils and then sell them anonymously to Jews so that they don't have to worry about tovelling them?

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1 comment thread

I wonder if kashrut and tevillah are different. If I eat in someone's house and it turns out there's ... (2 comments)
I wonder if kashrut and tevillah are different. If I eat in someone's house and it turns out there's ...
Monica Cellio‭ wrote 5 months ago

I wonder if kashrut and tevillah are different. If I eat in someone's house and it turns out there's a problem with that person's kashrut, I've erred once. If I incorrectly assume that tevillah has been done, I'm erring every time I use it, right?

rosends‭ wrote 5 months ago

I would think that it would still be considered as being used under the same initial erroneous assumption.