Communities

Writing
Writing
Codidact Meta
Codidact Meta
The Great Outdoors
The Great Outdoors
Photography & Video
Photography & Video
Scientific Speculation
Scientific Speculation
Cooking
Cooking
Electrical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Judaism
Judaism
Languages & Linguistics
Languages & Linguistics
Software Development
Software Development
Mathematics
Mathematics
Christianity
Christianity
Code Golf
Code Golf
Music
Music
Physics
Physics
Linux Systems
Linux Systems
Power Users
Power Users
Tabletop RPGs
Tabletop RPGs
Community Proposals
Community Proposals
tag:snake search within a tag
answers:0 unanswered questions
user:xxxx search by author id
score:0.5 posts with 0.5+ score
"snake oil" exact phrase
votes:4 posts with 4+ votes
created:<1w created < 1 week ago
post_type:xxxx type of post
Search help
Notifications
Mark all as read See all your notifications »
Q&A

Welcome to the Judaism community on Codidact!

Will you help us build our community of learners? Drop into our study hall, ask questions, help others with answers to their questions, share a d'var torah if you're so inclined, invite your friends, and join us in building this community together. Not an ask-the-rabbi service, just people at all levels learning together.

Comments on Tevillas Keilim on Used things

Parent

Tevillas Keilim on Used things

+1
−0

I was reading up on tevillas keilim and saw the following statements on this site:

Utensils require tevila if they were given by a Jew to a Yehudi as a gift or if they were bought from a aino Yehudi .

this would lead me to think that if one BOUGHT from a Jew, one would not be required to tovel

it is not proper or necessary to investigate if the host complies with the laws of tevilas keilim since we assume G-d fearing Jews comply with the halacha

with these 2 ideas, I have questions --

What happens if I buy from a Jew? Do I have to ask him if the utensils were immersed or should I (like as in the second case, which is for when I am eating at someone's house) assume that they were?

What happens if I know the seller is Jewish but I don't know who he is or have any way of contacting him (for example if I'm buying off of a website which only allows Jewish users)?

Could I start a business in which I buy utensils and then sell them anonymously to Jews so that they don't have to worry about tovelling them?

History
Why does this post require attention from curators or moderators?
You might want to add some details to your flag.
Why should this post be closed?

1 comment thread

I wonder if kashrut and tevillah are different. If I eat in someone's house and it turns out there's ... (2 comments)
Post
+0
−0

One foundational point that might shed some clarity:

  • The requirement for tevilas keilim is only for utensils that are owned and being used with food by a Jew, but were previously owned by a non-Jew. If you own such a utensil but will not be using it for food (or at all), you have no requirement to immerse it.

So, if you buy utensils from a Jew that were personally used by him, then you don't need to immerse them because you can assume that has already been done. But if you buy utensils from a Jew that were only purchased for the purpose of resale, then he would have no obligation to immerse them, and you cannot assume they were immersed.

And no, such a business wouldn't be viable, because the purchasers would have to assume they would need to immerse them.

History
Why does this post require attention from curators or moderators?
You might want to add some details to your flag.

2 comment threads

https://judaism.stackexchange.com/q/14213 (1 comment)
This calls into question the threshold of use. Do I have to hold each spoon? Lick it once? Use it for... (2 comments)
This calls into question the threshold of use. Do I have to hold each spoon? Lick it once? Use it for...
rosends‭ wrote about 1 year ago

This calls into question the threshold of use. Do I have to hold each spoon? Lick it once? Use it for cereal? Is it about stated kavannah or demonstrated action? I have utensils that, after many years, I haven't actually used. When I put them in the drawer, did that constitute intent?

PinnyM‭ wrote about 1 year ago · edited about 1 year ago

Intent is not the issue here. Only the actual using of the utensil - while eating food or while preparing the food for eating - may not be done until after tevila. In theory, you could defer the tevila until just before it came into contact with the food. That would complicate things practically, since you'd have to have some way to keep track of which items you haven't yet immersed. So for practical reasons, you may want to take care of tevila for such utensils ahead of time, as soon as you expect it will be required.