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Comments on Why is "chinam" translated as "baseless"?
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Why is "chinam" translated as "baseless"?
Everywhere that the term חנם appears, as far as I can tell, it always means "without personal benefit": a שומר חנם (Bava Metzia 7:8) watches an object without receiving anything in return; a Jewish slave leaves at the end of his or her term חנם, without having to pay anything more (Shemos 21:2 and Shemos 21:11); Lavan said to Yaakov that he refused to allow him to work חנם, without receiving wages (Bereishis 29:15); Yonasan plead to his father Sha'ul that he not kill David חנם, for no benefit (Shmuel I:19:5); David says to Aronah that he will not take the future Har HaBayis חנם, without paying for it (Shmuel II:24:24); Yeshaya promises that just as we were sold חנם, we will be redeemed without paying (Yeshayahu 52:3); etc.
Yet when the term חנם is used in relation to Tisha B'av, the term tends to be translated as "baseless." The second Churban was caused by שנאת חנם (Yoma 9b.8); the term seemingly should mean "hatred without benefit," not "hatred without cause." The Jews in the desert cried upon the Spies' report a בכיה של חנם (Taanit 29a.7); the term seemingly should mean "crying without benefit," not "crying without cause."
Yet "without cause" is exactly how these phrases tend to be translated (ex. Aish, Chabad). Where does this translation of חנם come from?
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