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Everywhere that the term חנם appears, as far as I can tell, it always means "without personal benefit": a שומר חנם (Bava Metzia 7:8) watches an object without receiving anything in return; a Jewish...
#1: Initial revision
by
DonielF
·
2020-07-30T15:55:51Z (over 4 years ago)
Why is "chinam" translated as "baseless"?
Everywhere that the term חנם appears, as far as I can tell, it always means "without personal benefit": a שומר חנם (Bava Metzia 7:8) watches an object without receiving anything in return; a Jewish slave leaves at the end of his or her term חנם, without having to pay anything more (Shemos 21:2 and Shemos 21:11); Lavan said to Yaakov that he refused to allow him to work חנם, without receiving wages (Bereishis 29:15); Yonasan plead to his father Sha'ul that he not kill David חנם, for no benefit (Shmuel I:19:5); David says to Aronah that he will not take the future Har HaBayis חנם, without paying for it (Shmuel II:24:24); Yeshaya promises that just as we were sold חנם, we will be redeemed without paying (Yeshayahu 52:3); etc. Yet when the term חנם is used in relation to Tisha B'av, the term tends to be translated as "baseless." The second Churban was caused by שנאת חנם (Yoma 9b.8); the term seemingly should mean "hatred without benefit," not "hatred without cause." The Jews in the desert cried upon the Spies' report a בכיה של חנם (Taanit 29a.7); the term seemingly should mean "crying without benefit," not "crying without cause." Yet "without cause" is exactly how these phrases tend to be translated (ex. [Aish](https://www.aish.com/search/?keywords=baseless+hatred&q=baseless+hatred&submit=Search#gsc.tab=0&gsc.q=baseless%20hatred&gsc.page=1), [Chabad](https://www.chabad.org/search/results.asp?searchWord=baseless+hatred#gsc.tab=0&gsc.q=baseless%20hatred&gsc.page=1)). **Where does this translation of חנם come from?**