Why are Matzah and Sukkah different in terms of intent?

Bottom line question is why is a Sukkah different from a Matzah in terms of (not) requiring (expressed) kavannah in its creation?

A Sukkah (according to the ruling of Beit Hillel on Mas Sukkah 9a) need not be made specifically to be a sukkah. Even the schach, strictly speaking, does not need to be put on l'shem Sukkah. Theoretically, if I walked through a war zone on Sukkot and saw a shell of a house on which branches happen to have fallen, and it conforms to the rules of a kosher Sukkah, I can use it as such. Similarly, if a non-Jew builds my Sukkah, I can use it and make the bracha of "leisheiv." [according to Artscroll, the Yerushalmi instructs a Jew to make a minor adjustment but that doesn't seem to be a sine qua non of kashrut]

But Matzah requires an expressed Kavannah -- that the matzah being made is being made specifically for the sake of the mitzvah of eating matzah http://rabbi.bendory.com/cgi-bin/album/matzo/67 So if a non-Jew were to make it, it still needs the supervision of a Jew to ensure that someone has the right intent during the creation https://www.yeshiva.co/midrash/7405

BTW, the knotting of tzitzit also requires expressing an intent when making it but I don't know if the tying of the knot in tefillin shel rosh does also.

Why would matzah require a particular and expressed intent but a Sukkah would not?

posted 5 months ago

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rosends‭

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