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Why isn't (or wasn't) Purim 2 days long in Chutz La'Aretz?
We have a second day of yom tov outside of Israel because the delay (or the deception) allowed for uncertainty about the date of Rosh Chodesh, therefore, the certainty regarding the date of the holiday was compromised.
But then why isn't Purim also 2 days long outside of Israel? The distance is the same and there are halachot and mitzvot that are incredibly time sensitive on the holiday. (Channukah is on the 25th so I assume that by then, the correct date could have been ascertained, but the precedent of the 14th/15th being unknown is established by other holidays)
Someone suggested that the difference is between min hatorah holidays and miderobonon holidays but I thought we were even more stringent on rabbinical enactments so that we don't treat them lightly. I know that the term is "yom tov sheini" and Purim isn't exactly a "yom tov" (though I don't see that as a biblical construct, just a post-biblical wording) but the practicality of communication should have required (even for a limited amount of time) the requirement to have 2 days because of uncdertainty.
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