Why do Egyptian priests keep land while Levites don't get any
In Gen 47:22, during the years of famine, Joseph takes land from everyone except the Egyptian priests. This is in direct contrast to the Jewish priests who will not own land in the Land of Israel.
Have any commentators have seen that contrast and put those two at odds and explained them?
1 answer
Rabbi S. R. Hirsch comments on this (Bereishis 47:22), but really limits his observation only to noting that Moshe was not imitating the Egyptian law:
"Only the land of the priests he did not buy etc." Here we see a complete contrast, which opposes that theory which has become rooted in so many people's views, the Moses had learnt and adopted his legal and religious wisdom from the Egyptians. The supposed teachers of Moses, the Egyptian priests, possessed land, more, after the alteration in Joseph's time, were the sole owners of actual land, and besides had a fixed assured state income. Our Kohanim possessed no land at all, and had no income from state funds, but were dependent for their existence on the good-will and respect of private individuals. Had Moshe Rabbeinu been a "Moses" [self-interested priestly lawgiver] he would have made other arrangements for his own tribe.
This comment hints at the social implications of the different systems and the social value of the Torah's approach, but without elaboration.
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Just a note -- not every commentator sees the word "kohen" in 47:22 to refer to priests in a way parallel to the use of the word as it applies to the castes among the biblical Jews. If it is simply a title of rank/nobility then the difference in terms of land ownership is natural. — rosends†about 2 months ago