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Comments on Disposing of a Christian bible written in Hebrew?

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Disposing of a Christian bible written in Hebrew?

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While sorting through boxes of books in the attic, I came across a Christian bible written in Hebrew. (Some family member was apparently given it by a missionary when living in Israel and didn't dispose of it then.) The book is only their second volume; it doesn't include Tanakh.

If the book were written in English I would simply recycle (if possible) or discard (otherwise). But this is written in Hebrew, and I have no idea whether their books use the tetragramaton. I could try skimming through it looking for that name, but I could still miss it unless I spend a lot of time on the task. I could put it in the box for burial just in case, but that feels like I'm elevating their book in status.

How have others handled cases of uncertain sheimot in other religions' holy books? In the case of Christianity, are there specific passages to check? (If the book included their adaptation of the Tanakh that would be easy; I know plenty of places to look. But I don't know their works.) Is that nagging feeling I have about the genizah box misplaced, and it's perfectly fine to add anything doubtful regardless of its source?

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General comments (7 comments)
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My understanding is that even an actual Sefer Torah - i.e., full text, written on parchment, etc. - written by an apostate (Jew or non-Jew with the "wrong" intentions) is not Sheimos. This would certainly include any printed Hebrew text that was printed by or on behalf of missionaries, so "given it by a missionary" is key information. See Ain't That a Sheimos? which doesn't spell out all of this but does say "Names written by non-Jews are to be "hidden away" (i.e., placed in sheimos), while those written by apostate Jews are actually to be burned as a move against heresy." I am pretty sure (just need to find a reference...) that this applies to (perhaps even more so) items written by non-Jews with the intent of misleading Jews.

As to whether this particular item was truly written for missionary purposes, keep in mind that these days the vast majority of Christians do not study original sources in Hebrew (or Greek or Latin). There are certainly scholars who do, but I suspect most of them would actually go to printed Jewish source texts directly. Far more likely, unfortunately, for a Hebrew text printed by Christians (not Bnei Noach) is some intent to mislead Jews.

Where it gets a bit trickier, and I don't know the answer, is if a non-Jew prints a Hebrew text that would normally be considered Sheimos and does so for non-Jews - as a textual reference for non-Jews (i.e., not to turn Jews away from traditional Judaism and not to explicitly deny traditional Judaism. My hunch (and it would be interesting to know more) is that if it is by someone who we would consider a "Ben Noach" then it would be Sheimos but that if it was by someone such as a typical Christian - e.g., someone who considers the Tanakh as "Old Testament" and who believes the Messiah has already been here - then it would also not be Sheimos.

On the other hand, reprints by non-Jews of actual Jewish texts in a non-religious context, such as pictures of a Sefer Torah or of a page from a Tanakh that happens to include Sheimos, such as occasionally happens in ordinary articles about Jewish holidays in secular newspapers, is Sheimos and that page should be removed and treated accordingly.

Personal note: When writing a little article for my Shul newsletter about the dedication of the renovated Aron at my Shul, I had a semi-pro take a top-quality digital picture and I adjusted it a bit so that the 10 Commandments at the top would not have Sheimos so that any copies would not be Sheimos.

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General comments (3 comments)
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Monica Cellio‭ wrote almost 4 years ago

I assume it was printed in Hebrew because that's the primary language of Israel, where the book was being distributed. Whether it was intended to mislead Jews, or was general proselytizing in a Jewish-dominant country, I don't know. Likewise, I don't know whether it was printed by the proselytizing group or was printed "innocently" (for use by Hebrew-reading Christians) and then repurposed. Are the intentions of the printer what's relevant, or those of the person who gave it to my relative?

manassehkatz‭ wrote almost 4 years ago

I highly suspect that the item you described is for proselytizing to Jews. Is it definite? No. But between your statement that it came from a missionary and my general experience, and the majority of people who would read such a thing (i.e., fluent Hebrew speakers in Israel) are Jewish, it looks clear to me. As far as intentions: the intentions of the author and/or the printer. I'm pretty sure simple possession of a Sefer by an apostate does not change the status of the Sefer.

DonielF‭ wrote almost 4 years ago

The one thing you forgot is that if it was written by an apostate Jew one must destroy it, rather than its simply not being Sheimos.