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Why must yefas toar be allowed
We have in Ki Setze the laws of 'yefas toar' meaning a non-Jewish woman captured in war whom a Jewish man now wants as his wife. The meforshim (commentators) say that the only reason this was allowed is that if there were a law against it it would not be kept since the yetser hora (temptation) is very strong on this. So rather than have people sin, Hashem made the law that it is allowed.
Why must Hashem gave allowed it? He could made the yetser hora less on this and then people wouldn't sin.
1 answer
Not a complete answer, but the Gemara in Sanhedrin 64a says that Chazal davened to remove the yetzer hara for avodah zara from people because they were failing, and when Hashem agreed, the yetzer hara for avoda zara went away, but with it went nevuah. The Gemara continues that chazal davened for the end of a yezter hara for arayos, but when it was "captured," people stopped doing anything and so they decided to only half-way incapacitate it.
So, to us the following question makes sense: "well, just make the yetzer for things besides arayos separate from the yetzer hara for arayos and make the latter less strong," but that might be like saying "I'd like a universe where planets orbit other plants, but where things don't fall when you drop them" - it makes sense to us to speak about falling without orbit, but they're actually the same phenomena and you can't have one without the other, and so too perhaps the desire for arayos and Torah study on some deeper lever.
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