Welcome to the Judaism community on Codidact!
Will you help us build our community of learners? Drop into our study hall, ask questions, help others with answers to their questions, share a d'var torah if you're so inclined, invite your friends, and join us in building this community together. Not an ask-the-rabbi service, just people at all levels learning together.
Post History
Avodah Zarah 6a.16-6b.1: והתניא: אמר רבי נתן, ״מנין שלא יושיט אדם כוס של יין לנזיר ואבר מן החי לבני נח? ת"ל (ויקרא יט, יד) ולפני עור לא תתן מכשול.״ It was taught in a Braisa: R' Nassan said, "Fro...
#1: Initial revision
by
DonielF
·
2020-08-19T20:37:52Z (over 4 years ago)
Is one in violation of Lifnei Iveir for setting himself up to sin later?
Avodah Zarah 6a.16-6b.1: >והתניא: אמר רבי נתן, ״מנין שלא יושיט אדם כוס של יין לנזיר ואבר מן החי לבני נח? ת"ל (ויקרא יט, יד) ולפני עור לא תתן מכשול.״‏ > >It was taught in a Braisa: R' Nassan said, "From where do we know that one may not extend a cup of wine to a Nazirite nor a limb from a live animal to a Noahide? The verse teaches (Leviticus 19:14), 'Do not place a stumbling block before a blind person.'" According to this definition, where Lifnei Iveir means that one is giving someone an opportunity to sin, may one be in violation by setting himself up to sin? For instance, if a person knows he will be tempted by non-kosher meat, would his initial purchase of the meat be a violation of Lifnei Iveir, even before he actually eats of it?