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Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific...
Answer
#6: Post edited
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T19:54:12Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is ambiguous. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in these places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
- Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is ambiguous (at least to modern readers). If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in these places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
#5: Post edited
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T19:48:20Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in these places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
- Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is ambiguous. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in these places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
#4: Post edited
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T19:47:20Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
- Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in these places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
#3: Post edited
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T19:47:07Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, 15:63, 16:10), so in places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
- Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, Joshua 15:63, and Joshua 16:10), so in places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
#2: Post edited
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T19:46:23Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. Otherwise the phrase "to this day" would be ambiguous, and it would make more sense to say "no one will ever know where his grave is."
- Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. If "to this day" refers to a specific generation of readers, than this generation is unspecified and the meaning is unclear. If it's supposed to hold valid for every generation of readers, than this contradicts the normal use of the phrase "to this day" in the Bible. There are many instances in the Bible where "to this day" is used about something that is no longer true (for example, Joshua 9:27, 15:63, 16:10), so in places it clearly means "at the time of writing."
#1: Initial revision
by
Technically Natural
·
2020-08-12T18:07:00Z (over 4 years ago)
Near the end of D'varim, we are told that no one knows where Moses' grave is "to this day," which to me would imply that this part was written after his death. Otherwise the phrase "to this day" would be ambiguous, and it would make more sense to say "no one will ever know where his grave is."