Welcome to the Judaism community on Codidact!
Will you help us build our community of learners? Drop into our study hall, ask questions, help others with answers to their questions, share a d'var torah if you're so inclined, invite your friends, and join us in building this community together. Not an ask-the-rabbi service, just people at all levels learning together.
Post History
If someone b'mezid, intentionally, prayed shacharis without tefillin, would he have fulfilled his obligation? Or would he have to pray again with tefillin.
#3: Post edited
by
manassehkatz
·
2020-07-17T00:20:24Z (almost 4 years ago)
If someone intentionally prayed shacharis without tefillin, would he have fulfilled his obligation? Or would he have to pray again with tefillin.
- If someone b'mezid, intentionally, prayed shacharis without tefillin, would he have fulfilled his obligation? Or would he have to pray again with tefillin.
#2: Post edited
by
robev
·
2020-07-15T21:57:18Z (almost 4 years ago)
If someone b’mezid davened shacharis without tefillin, would he still br yotzei, or would he have to daven again with tefillin.
- If someone intentionally prayed shacharis without tefillin, would he have fulfilled his obligation? Or would he have to pray again with tefillin.
#1: Initial revision
by
Racquetball
·
2020-07-15T21:17:57Z (almost 4 years ago)
If someone b’mezid davened shacharis without tefillin, would he still br yotzei, or would he have to daven again with tefillin.