Communities

Writing
Writing
Codidact Meta
Codidact Meta
The Great Outdoors
The Great Outdoors
Photography & Video
Photography & Video
Scientific Speculation
Scientific Speculation
Cooking
Cooking
Electrical Engineering
Electrical Engineering
Judaism
Judaism
Languages & Linguistics
Languages & Linguistics
Software Development
Software Development
Mathematics
Mathematics
Christianity
Christianity
Code Golf
Code Golf
Music
Music
Physics
Physics
Linux Systems
Linux Systems
Power Users
Power Users
Tabletop RPGs
Tabletop RPGs
Community Proposals
Community Proposals
tag:snake search within a tag
answers:0 unanswered questions
user:xxxx search by author id
score:0.5 posts with 0.5+ score
"snake oil" exact phrase
votes:4 posts with 4+ votes
created:<1w created < 1 week ago
post_type:xxxx type of post
Search help
Notifications
Mark all as read See all your notifications »
Q&A

Welcome to the Judaism community on Codidact!

Will you help us build our community of learners? Drop into our study hall, ask questions, help others with answers to their questions, share a d'var torah if you're so inclined, invite your friends, and join us in building this community together. Not an ask-the-rabbi service, just people at all levels learning together.

Comments on Did any ancient Jewish writers address the differences in Jeremiah's source texts?

Post

Did any ancient Jewish writers address the differences in Jeremiah's source texts?

+4
−0

The Septuagint's version of Jeremiah is one eighth shorter than the Masoretic Text's version. In the Dead Sea Scrolls is evidence of both versions.

Did any ancient Jewish writers (such as in the Mishnah, Talmud or Midrash) address the origin of the different source texts or offer an explanation for them?

History
Why does this post require moderator attention?
You might want to add some details to your flag.
Why should this post be closed?

1 comment thread

General comments (2 comments)
General comments
Harel13‭ wrote over 3 years ago

@curiousdanii, I commented yesterday on the answer below that there's a chance that the sages referred to the differences in an inexplicit manner, as there's evidence that they inexplicitly referred to other parts of the Septuagint. As long as there isn't yet a comprehensive answer that examines this possiblity, I thought I would take a shot at it myself, but it will take time (quite a lot of sources and time constraints). However, I must say, that I see now that many of the redacted verses are

Harel13‭ wrote over 3 years ago

very central to Jewish beliefs, which in my mind raises a red flag as to what went on in the minds of the authors of the Septuagint. This is actually makes me optimistic that I'll find similar stances (about the importance of these verses, as opposed to removing them) in the Talmud and Midrash.